Very insightful essay , thanks for sharing your viewpoint. i am gradually learning more about psychoanalysis so your deep understanding is very helpful. i am trying to help supplement my reinvented materialist perspective, along the lines of Zizek and Vivek Chibber. i look forward to finding more time to read your other publications. I do have one question that i can’t seem to answer that i’m
hoping you can clarify - in this case, you are the subject supposed to know haha.
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Why are there no fundamental, fixed signifiers ( established concepts) for sex / sexual beings in language - why does language fail to adequately represent sexuality (male and female sexes)? Correct me if I misinterpreted, but it's the fact that there is an inherent imbalance / deviation (perversion) of humans as linguistic beings apropos sex, because we are able to resist biological instincts as proven by our drives (e.g. death drive). If this is the case, why? What makes us humans distinct within language (symbolic order) to the point that sex can’t be fixed or determined; that gender can’t have any essence? Why can other animals adhere to a sexual essence but not for humans? I am assuming it is because - according to Lacan - they don’t have access to the Signifier and thus don’t contain a symbolic order that structures their reality; does this then imply that humans did have an a priori neutral base of sexuality prior to language? If yes, then why can’t it be sustained when entering language, why can’t male-female be adequately represented?

Please let me know, thanks for any feedback